The apostles and the religions made humankind believe that Isaiah 53 was a prophecy that Jesus fulfilled as he suffered and supposedly died for all men.
Let us read carefully:
Who has believed our message and to whom has the arm of the Lord been revealed? Isaiah 53:1 (NIV)
"to whom has the arm of the LORD been revealed?" - This is not a prophecy. It is only a recollection of a past event in the history of the people of Israel, about a man to whom God has revealed His Arm or mighty power.
Let us find out to whom was the arm of the Lord revealed?
But Moses sought the favor of the Lord his God. “Lord,” he said, “why should your anger burn against your people, whom you brought out of Egypt with great power and a mighty hand? Exodus 32:11 (NIV)
We can read that God had revealed His arm of power to the Prophet Moses during the Exodus.
In the following Bible verse, the prophet Isaiah tells us how God revealed his arm of power to Moses.
Let us read Isaiah 63:12.
Where is he who set his Holy Spirit among them, who sent his glorious arm of power to be at Moses’ right hand, who divided the waters before them, to gain for himself everlasting renown, Isaiah 63:12 (NIV)
"who sent his glorious arm of power to be at Moses’ right hand"- The man in Isaiah 53 that Isaiah was speaking about was none other than Moses because it is to Moses, that God had shown His symbolic mighty arm of power!
Many may insist that the man in Isaiah 53 is Jesus because of what verses 4 to 5 state:
“Surely he took up our pain and bore our suffering, yet we considered him punished by God, stricken by him, and afflicted. But he was pierced for our transgressions, he was crushed for our iniquities; the punishment that brought us peace was on him, and by his wounds we are healed.” Isaiah 53:4 to 5 (NIV)
If we reread the Bible verses, it says “yet we CONSIDERED him stricken by God,” - Considered means not physically stricken. It describes the hardships that the prophet Moses went through in his mission the lead the Israelites out of their slavery in Egypt.
How do we know that Moses is being pertained to in this writing in Isaiah 53?
Let us read the final verse in Isaiah 53:
Therefore I will give him a portion among the great, and he will divide the spoils with the strong, because he poured out his life unto death, and was numbered with the transgressors, For he bore the sin of many and made intercession for the transgressors. Isaiah 53:12 (NIV)
“was NUMBERED WITH THE TRANSGRESSORS,” – Moses was numbered with the transgressors among the Israelites who were not allowed by God to enter the Promised Land, when he disobeyed God’s command. (Numbers 20:1-13).
Is it true that Moses interceded or asked God to pardon the transgressions of his fellow Israelites?
The next day Moses said to the people, "You have committed a great sin. But now I will go up to the LORD; perhaps I can make atonement for your sin." So Moses went back to the LORD and said, "Oh, what a great sin these people have committed! They have made themselves gods of gold. But now, please forgive their sin - but if not, then blot me out of the book you have written." Exodus 32:30-32 (NIV)
The request of Moses was great, that he even offered his own life to atone for the sins of his people.
What did God say to Moses?
The LORD replied to Moses, "Whoever has sinned against me I will blot out of my book. Now go, lead the people to the place I spoke of and my angel will go before you. However, when the time comes for me to punish, I will punish them for their sin." Exodus 32:33-34 (NIV)
"Whoever has sinned against me I will blot out of my book" -- God did not let Moses atone for the sins of the Israelites.
"When the time comes for me to punish, I will punish them for their sin." - Whoever sins will answer God for it, and there will be a time for judgment.
Why did God not allow Moses to die for the sins of the people of Israel?
Fathers shall not be put to death for their children, nor children put to death for their fathers; each is to die for his own sin. Deuteronomy 24:16 (NIV)
"each is to die for his own sin" - each man will be accountable for his own sin; no one will receive punishment for another person's sin. God did not allow Moses to die for the sins of others because of this law.
It is not Jesus who is pertained to in Isaiah 53, it was never a prophecy but a recollection of what Moses had done.
Furthermore, with such a righteous decree in Deuteronomy 24:16 , it will also mean that the teaching that God let Jesus die for our sins is invalid.
Reading Deuteronomy 24:16 again:
Fathers shall not be put to death for their children, nor children put to death for their fathers; each is to die for his own sin. Deuteronomy 24:16 (NIV)
The religious teachings that claim a "sinless" Jesus was sacrificed for humanity's sins contradict the principle stated in Deuteronomy 24:16.
By promoting this doctrine, these teachings inadvertently portray God as inconsistent or even unrighteous, as they suggest God violated His own established law by permitting a blameless person to be brutally executed to grant forgiveness to the guilty.
What was the true reason why Jesus suffered a cruel punishment from the hands of men?
“I will be his father, and he will be my son. When he does wrong, I will punish him with a rod wielded by men, with floggings inflicted by human hands” II Samuel 7:14 (NIV)
“I will be his father, and he will be my son." – Jesus was not a direct Son of God but a descendant of King David (Lk 1:31-32, Matt.1:1)
"When he does wrong, I will punish him with a rod wielded by men with floggings inflicted by human hands” - We can observe how God’s word in 2 Samuel 7:14 that men would punish a descendant of King David was fulfilled in the case of Jesus. (Mt.27:25-26)
Moreover, based on God's word, the punishment of being beaten by men will happen once he does wrong and not for the sins of men. Therefore Jesus had done wrong, and the apostles only fabricated his story about “dying for our sins.”
How can we be sure that the apostles twisted God's word to conceal the reason why Jesus was forsaken by God to be scourged by men? Let us read Hebrews 1:4-5
So he became as much superior to the angels as the name he has inherited is superior to theirs. For to which of the angels did God ever say, "You are my Son; today I have become your Father "? Or again, "I will be his Father, and he will be my Son"? Hebrews 1:4-5 (NIV)
"So he became as much superior to the angels as the name he has inherited is superior to theirs." – The verses convey the impression that Jesus, being the son of God who is superior to God's angels in heaven.
Now in Hebrews 1:5, we can read that the writer used the following words: "Or again, "I will be his Father, and he will be my Son"?
However, let us read God's entire word in 2 Samuel 7:14
When he does wrong, I will punish him with a rod wielded by men, with floggings inflicted by human hands” II Samuel 7:14 (NIV)
The apostles only wrote in Hebrews 1:5, the part where God said in 2 Samuel 7:14, which read: "I will be his father, and he will be my son." They left out the warning: "WHEN HE DOES WRONG, I WILL PUNISH HIM WITH A ROD WIELDED BY MEN, WITH FLOGGINGS INFLICTED BY HUMAN HANDS."
God said that men would flog Jesus, the son of David if he committed wrong.
The apostles intentionally hid the truth about why Jesus died a cruel death. They are guilty of teaching humankind a false teaching that God sent Jesus to suffer and die for our sins and even used the writing in Isaiah 53 to hide it.
This is not to discredit Jesus either but only to reveal the real Jesus that the apostles had hidden.